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1. e6+ looks quite promising to me, perhaps followed by 2. Rd7!? not too sure what to do after that …
Does this look like it’s on the right track?
Bc4.
I’m thining the simple,
1.Bc4+; and black has two options:
a)1….Kf8
b)1….Kg7
a)2.exf Bxf
3.Bc5+ Be7
4.Rd7 wins
b) 2.exf+ Kxf
(2…Kh7 3.Rxh1 g5 (only way to stop 4.Rxh3#) 4.Rxh3+ Kg6 5.Bd3+ Kxf6 6.Bd4+ Kf7 (6….Kd6 7.Qe5+ Kd7 8.Bf5+ Ke8 9.QxR#) 7.Bc4+ Kf8 8. Rxh8#)….I still need to confirm this whole line with a comp.
3.Qf4+ kg7
4.Be4+ Kh7
5.RxN and there is no efficient way for white to stop 6.Rxh3 mate.
1.e6+
… would work pretty well if White could rely on Black to fall for:
1…Kxe6??
2.Bc4+ Kf5
3.Qf4#
But after:
1…Kf8 (or 1…Kg7, or 1…Kg8)
2.Rd7 Rb7
… Black is in control.
I would say
1. f6: Kf6: (Else 2. Qe7:+, winning a piece)
2. Qf4+ Kg7 (Ke6 3. Bc4#)
3. Bd4+ Kg8
4. Bc4+ Kh7
5. Qh4#
The question is if Black can allow Qe7:+ and try to promote the h-pawn. It is not likely.
Second thought after seeing someone’s Bc4+ as first move:
1. Bc4+ Kf8 (1. … Kg7 2. f6:+ and either winning a piece or transposing to my previous line after 2. … Kf6: 3. Qf4+)
2. f6:
I. 2. … Bd8 3. Qb8: +-
II. 2. … Bb4 3. Rd7 Rd8 (3. … Be7 transposing to III.) 4. Rf7+ Kg8 5.Rh7+ Kf8 6. Rh8:#
III. 2. … Bf6: 3. Rd7 Be7 (3. … Rd8 4. Rf7+ etc…) 4. Bc5(Bg5 with the same result) Rd8!? (trickiest) 5. Be7:+ Qe7: 6. Rd8:+ (6. Re7:?? Rd1#) Qe8 7. Qf7#
Summary:
Best practical chance for Black is 1. Bc4+ Kg7 2. f6:+ Kh7 3. e7: Ng3 (‘idea’ h2, h1Q) 4. Qg3: h2 5. Bg2 and the pawn is stopped, +-.
1. f6: Kf6: (Else 2. Qe7:+, winning a piece)
1…Rd8 wins easily.
2. Qf4+ Kg7 (Ke6 3. Bc4#)
3. Bd4+ Kg8
3…Kh7 wins.
4. Bc4+ Kh7
5. Qh4#
Sorry, but that isn’t mate — Black simply plays 5…Bxh4.