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Fou d6+ la Tour est perdue et le pion va à DAME
i disagree. lets try Bc6, rook moves and white either wins a whole rook for nothing, gets a queen or gives mate.
“white either wins a whole rook for nothing”
Being down BB vs QRP that won’t be enough, hm? 😉
[I am not quite sure which variation you mean here but I probably think you mean something like 1. Bc6 Rc8? or else after which white gets much more than just a rook].
My main problem after Bc6 (which is the best move I also think) is 1. -, Rxg3+ !? (sacrifizing a whole rook :D) and probably it’s going to end in a perpetual (white’s bishop and rook mustn’t leave there places !).
The cute try 2. Kh1?? loses to Rd3. 🙁
My prediciton: 1. Bc6 to force the draw.
Greetings
Jochen
“My prediction: 1. Bc6 to force the draw.”
Yeah, that’s what I see as well. Bc6 is white’s only try, and black must take the draw to avoid mate. I don’t see any other choices on either side.
Is there any hope in 1. f5 ? That stops the Rxg3+ and Qxg3+ stuff and threatens f6+ which leads to mate. Any chance that can work?
“Is there any hope in 1. f5 ? That stops the Rxg3+ and Qxg3+ stuff and threatens f6+ which leads to mate. Any chance that can work?”
Well, suppose black simply takes the pawn with 1 (f5?) exf5! Then there is no f6+ threat, and white is down a whole bunch and has no attack; and now Bc6 no longer works.
1-Bc6 Rc8
2-Rd7+ Kf8
3-Rd8+ Ke7
4-Rxc8 Anything
5-Re8 mate.
Kinan
What am I missing? Can’t white move Bg2 and win black’s queen and still have the leverage to promote the advanced pawn?
2:18 anon,
Bg2 Rxg3
hxg3 Qxg3
and I think we’re back to a perpetual type situation much like those given above.
Are you guys sure that 1.Bc6 ends up in a perpetual?
let’s say:
1.Bc6 Rxg3+
2.PxR Qxp+
3.Kf1 Qh3+
4.Kf2 Qg3+
5.Kd2 Qg4+
6.Bf3 Qf5
7.Bd6+ Kd7
8.Bc6+ Kc8
9.BXR KxP
10.Bd6+ Kc8
11.Bxa3 wouldn’t white have three minor pieces for a queen. And I don’t see how white could have a perpetual.
1.f5! should be the solution, as previously posted. White covers g3 and is threatening 2.Bg2 winning the queen (e.g. after 1.-ef5), or 2.f6 ef6 3.Bd6+ Ke8 4.Bc6++
I take it back — after 1.f5 ef5 2.Bg2 Rg3 3.hg3 Qg4 there doesn’t seem to be anything for white.
1. Bg2 Rxg3
2. hxg3 Qxg3
3. Bd6+ Kd7
4. Bc6+ Kc8
5. Bxf8
Now White has a rook a 2 bishops v the queen.
oh this is an interesting one
1. bg2? rg3 2. hg qg3 3. bd6+ kd7 4. Bxf8+ Kxc7. To me, it looks like a -/+. For example 5.Bxa3?? h3 -+
1. f5!? ef 2. bg2 rxg3 3.hg qg4 4. rd4 qe2 looks unclear but probably black’s winning; e.g. 5.bd6+ kf6 6. bxf8 hg (-+?)???
1. bc6 rc8 2. rd7 kf8 3. rd8 ke7 rc8 and black may or may not have a perpetual but certainly not more than a draw
1. bc6 rg3+ 2. hg qg3+ kf1 3. qh3+ 1/2
henryk: white cannot move the king past the d-file since black simply have f6 and white cant respond rd7+ since the file is blocked
on the other hand its unclear how black can push:
3… Rc8 4. rd7+ kf8 5. rd8 ke7 6. rxc8 and re8#
so: i think it’s a draw. the only reasonable move is 1.bc6
axel
PS can the pros calculate all such lines during the game?????
btw henryk
if you meant 5 ke2 (rather than kd2) black may respond 5… qh2+ with a perpetual (6. bg2? qg3+ 7. kh1 qb3 (-+?) )
9… kxc7 is not necessary. for example 9… qc2+ or a2 (10 bxg7 qg4+ -+)
this position may be in black’s favour (i dunno though)
To anon Monday, November 19, 2007 3:42:00 PM
Yes, I meant 5.Ke2 where if black plays 5…Kh2+
6.Ke3 Qb2(for instance) 7.Bd6 Kf6 (forced since 7…ke7 loses to 8. Bxa3+ and wins queen)8.BxR Qc3+ ke2 9. Qxc7 Bxa3
But yeah that is unclear to 10.Qc2+ and black grabs white’ b pawn.
But i think you might be right, it’s very unclear and the wisest thing for white to do is play for a draw.
Why not 1. Rd7+ ? Seems winning to me.
Bb2
Of course is Rd7+! If the King tries to run away instead of taking it then
it would be mated by the queening of the pawn or Kxd7 Bc6 mate. Very simple problem, isn´t it? 😉