White to move. How should White proceed?
k7/p1pK4/Pp6/5p1p/B5p1/4N3/8/2r5 w – – 0 1
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kc8
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How about 1. Nc2, threatening Kxc7 and Bc6. If 1… Rxc2 then 2.Bxc2, 3. Kxc7, and eventually check along the a8-h1 diagonal.
After Nc2 there is no necessity to take the knight since black has immediately Kb8 at his disposal. Therefore,
1.Kc8! (threatening Nc2 or Nd5 depending on blacks answer)
e.g. 1… Rc5 2.Nd5 threatening Nxc7+(the rook can’t take the knight on d5, because of 3.Bc6 and after 3.Nxc7 Rxc7 4.Kxc7, the mating threat Bc6 can’t be stopped)
1.Kc8 then 2.Nc2 then 3. Bc6. After 1.Nc2 black jsut plays 1.Kb8.
kc8, followed by Nd5, followed by capture on c7, rxc7 and kxc7 followed by bc6 mate
1.Kc8 c6 2.Ng2! b5 (2…Rc4 3.Nf4!)
3.Bb3 and Be6,Kc7 and Bc8
I think Kc8 wins – Nc2? Rb8.
Kc8 g3
Nd5 g2
Nxc7+ Rxc7+
Kxc7 g1=Q
Bc6++
iMack, the problem is that white cannot play twice in a raw, and after Bxc2 black plays Kb8
Hey. I don’t see my comments. Any specific reasons why they are not approved. I have merely provided solutions to your puzzles.
Kc8 is winning
kc8 and depending on what black does work the knight around to c7, mating with either knight or bishop.
1. Kc8! (putting the black king in a mating net either by the bishop on the h1-a8 diagonal, or by the night on the c7 square. The black rook will become overloaded as it tries to counter these threats. Mate is inevitable.)
E.g. 2. Rc5 Nd5
Or if 3. … c6 with the 4. … b5 plan, then the night maneuver Nf5-d6-e8-c7# has to be considered.
Kc8, then Nd5, then Nc7, then Kc7, then Bc6…
1. Kc8, stalemating the black king. There follows:
1..g3 2. Nd5 g2 3. Nc7+ Rxc7 4. Kc7 g1Q 5. Bc6#
Black can’t stop this manouver with his rook
1…Rd5 2. Nd5 Rxd5 3. Bc6#
The key is in eliminating or distracting black rook guarding c6 square
Somebody wrote: “The key is in eliminating or distracting black rook guarding c6 square”, while he was suggesting the correct Kc8. Nevertheless I would like to emphasize that the key is to prevent black playing Kb8 after which the position is easily won for black.
Hi Susan Polgar,
In any initial Kc8 combination,White wins the game.
Two example.
Scenario 1 :
===========
1. Kc8 g3
2. Nc2 g2
3. Bc6+ mate.
Scenario 2 :
============
1. Kc8 c6
2. N*f5 b5
3. Bb3 Re1
4. Bc2 Re8+
5. Kc7 Rf8
6. K*c6 Rf6+
7. Nd6 g3
8. Be4 h4
9. Kc7+ mate
White wins : 1 – 0.
By
Venky[ Chennai – India ]
Obviously the first move is compulsory 1.Kc8!
Black can answer with 1…c6
1…Rc5 2.Nd5 b5 3.Bxb5! wins for White
so 1…c6 2.Nc2 as given by others is the winning plan
The problem will be a lot more interesting with blacks h-pawn on h4 instead of h5.
1.Kc8 h3 2.Nc2 Rxc2 3. Bxc2 h2
finn
Wow, I really like Pasman’s solution… what a great chess problem, Kc8 – c6 and then Ng2!! That’s a crazy move! 😀
White wins in all lines:
1.Kc8 ( Obligatory to prevent black’s Kb8 -/+ ) 1… c6 ( Stops Nd5..Nc7 winning )
2.Nxf5 b5 3.Bb3
I. 3… g3 4.Be6
a) 4…g2 5.Kc7 Rd1 6.Bc8 Rd7+ 7.Bxd7 g1Q Bc6#
b) 4…Re1 5.Bd7 Rc1 Kc7( threating Bc8..Bc7#)
II. 3… Rf1 4.Be6
III.3…Re1 4.Nd6 Re7 5.Bf7 Rxf7 6. Nxf7 g3 7.Nd6 g2 8.Ne8 g1Q Nc7#
IV. 3…Rb1 4.Nd6 Rxb3 5.Ne8 ( Nc7# following )
KC8 C6
Nc2! b5
Nd4 bxB
Ne6 followed by Nc7#