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a4 wins
a4 … doesn’t that work?
1. a4!
a4, zugzwang. Both queens promote, but immediately after, the white king gets out of the way and it’s checkmate.
a4 and then black is zugged, right?
1.a4 b5
2.axb a4
3.b6 a3
4.b7 a2
5.b8=Q a1=Q
6.Kxf7 mate
or
1.a4 f6(f5)
2.gxf b5
3.Ke7 and f pawn is unstoppable
1. a4 and zugzwang looks the way to go. After 1. …b5 2. axb5 a4 ….. 5. b8=q a1=q 6. Kxf7#.
a4
wins for white
a4!
forcing black to move either the f pawn or b pawn. If black moves the be pawn, then white will queen right before black does…then the white King steps out of the way on e7 for a discovered checkmate!
1. a4
White must stop black pawns on queenside:1.a4 b5 2.a:b5 a4 3.b6 a3 4.b7 a2 5.b8Q a1Q 6.K:f7#
a4, simple, white queens first and then plays Kf7 mate.
a4!!
a4!
a4 wins by zugzwang
a4
One wonders, looking at this position, if zugzwang can play a nearly immediate role:
1. a4 b5
2. ab5 a4
3. b6 a3
4. b7 a2
5. b8(Q) a1(Q)
6. Kf7# So, black cannot win this race with his first move. This leaves black with either f6 or f5:
1. a4 f6
2. gf6 g5 (b5 loses as before)
3. fg5 and black is again forced to play b5 and lose the pawn race.
Also,
1. a4 f5
2. gf6 g5
3. fg5 and it is over for black, it appears to me.
This seems awfully simple. What am I missing? Just kidding.