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win for white with 1. a4
”win for white with 1. a4”
1.a4? bxa3 e.p.
2.bxa3 Kg3!
3.a4 h5! -+
”win for white with 1. a4”
1.a4? bxa3 e.p.
2.bxa3 Kg3!
3.a4 h5! -+
Your refutation is even better than you advertise. You’re right that 1…bxa3 does win, but it’s unnecessary; Black can just barge right in there with 1…Kg3.
1. Kxg2 followed by 2. a4.
1. Kxg2 followed by 2. a4.
1.Kxg2 Kg5 and Black wins.
1. Kxg2 followed by 2. a4.
1.Kxg2 Kg5 and Black wins.
I type the silliest things sometimes 🙁 Of course that’s supposed to be 1.Kxg2 Kg5 and Black draws (2.a4 bxa3 3.bxa3 Kf6).
process of elimination gives the win. 1. a4 doesn’t work directly to 1. .. Kg3.
1. Kxg2 doesn’t work due to 1. .. Kg5 2. a4/3 bxa3 3. bxa3 Kf6! (3. .. Kxf5 4. a4 Ke5 and accing d6 and c6 blocks the black king.
Hence 1. f6! and black is toast.
1.Kxg2? Kg5
2.a4 bxa3
3.bxa3 Kf6
4.a4 Ke7
5.a5 Kd8
So, to prevent this Black’s infiltration to the back ranks White plays first :
1.f6!!
Pharaoh
You better use Chinese than this crazy notation (8/2pp2pp/8/2PP1P2/1p5k/8/PP4p1/6K1 w – – 0 1) that I have no clue how to decipher!!!
I do not want to learn this notation that is never used anymore today.
This notation should simply be banned, as I think the FIDE banned it already!!
”I do not want to learn this notation that is never used anymore today.”
Which notation would you suggest for depicting a position?
FEN is very handy.
Maybe:
1.d6 cxd6 2.c6 dxc6 3.Kxg2 Kg4 4.a3 bxa3 5.bxa3 Kxf4 6.a4 and now a-pawn will promote
6. …Ke5 7.a5 Kd5 8.a6 Kc5 9.a7 Kb6 10.a8Q
Maybe:
1.d6 cxd6 2.c6 dxc6 3.Kxg2 Kg4 4.a3 bxa3 5.bxa3 Kxf4 6.a4 and now a-pawn will promote
6. …Ke5 7.a5 Kd5 8.a6 Kc5 9.a7 Kb6 10.a8Q
You’ve identified one of central themes of this knockout composition, but there’s a glitch: “5…Kxf4” isn’t a legal move, because the pawn is on f5. If you meant 5…Kxf5 6.a4, Black runs down the a-pawn via the back door, e.g. 6…Ke6 7.a5 Kd7, etc.
1.Kxg2 Kg4 2.a4 bxa3 3.bxa3 Kxf5 4.a4 Ke5 5.d6 cxd6 6.c6 dxc6 and a pawn will promote
1.Kg2? Kg5! (not 1…Kg4?)
see the refutation above.
Pharaoh
1. f6! is ‘of course’ ther solution. After 1.- gxf6 2. Kxg2 white has split the kingside pawns and won pawn on g2. Now a4 etc is winning easily.
1. f6! is ‘of course’ ther solution. After 1.- gxf6 2. Kxg2 white has split the kingside pawns and won pawn on g2. Now a4 etc is winning easily.
“Easily”? It wasn’t immediately obvious to me what to do after:
1.f6 gxg6
2.Kxg2 Kg4
3.a4 bxa3
4.bxa3 Kf5
5.a4 Ke5
… since Black’s king has reached the pawn’s queening square. But White does have one last magic trick up his sleeve for the win.