One fun line is: 1.d5 Kc5 2.Ke5 b4 3.d6 b3 4.d7 b2 5.d8=Q b1=Q 6.Qc8+ Kb anywhere 7.Qb8+ wins the queen
But, black can throw in 2…f6+ 3.Ke6, and then when the pawns queen after 7.Qc8+ black can play Kd4.
However, black has a better move on move 3.d6 Kc6! and now white must abandon the d-pawn.
I thought at first that white could change her move order: 1.Ke5 Kc4, and if the pawns march, then we get a queen ending with white to move. But black does not have to allow that. Instead, she can still use the same trick as before:
1.Ke5 Kc4 2.d5 Kc5! 3.d6 Kc6! and I feel that black should win with the outside passed pawn.
Just took a short look but I feel that 1. Kd5! is the only way to a draw.
1. d5 loses simply as Jonathan pointed out. As the black threat is Kc4 1. Kd3 seems to be the only alternative. After 1. Kd3 black has at least draw, too, by simply playing Ka3 as his pawn promotes with check (do I overlook here anything?). But there are several other moves black can try: 1. Kd3, g5!? or 1. Kd3, Ka5!? (e.g. 2. d5, Kb6 3. Kd4, g5! 4. f4 (what else?), f6 5. f5, b4 6. Kc4, b3 7. Kxb3, Kc5 0:1 or anything like that) and it is a thing of counting if black may even win this.
So I’d say 1. Kd5 secures the draw simply while other moves just give black chances to win.
But (of course) maybe I am missing anything (as I just took a short look and am not that good at counting in difficult pawn endgames)?
Black has an advantage here. Black should win the f2 pawn, but the subsequent queen endgame is very difficult. 1. Kd5 Kc3! 2. Kc5 b4 3. d5 b3 4. d6 b2 5. d7 b1/Q 6. d1/Q Qf5+ 7. Kd6 Qxf2 with good winng chances.
I think white has to start with Kd3,now the other moves…..
One fun line is:
1.d5 Kc5
2.Ke5 b4
3.d6 b3
4.d7 b2
5.d8=Q b1=Q
6.Qc8+ Kb anywhere
7.Qb8+ wins the queen
But, black can throw in 2…f6+
3.Ke6, and then when the pawns queen after 7.Qc8+ black can play Kd4.
However, black has a better move on move 3.d6 Kc6! and now white must abandon the d-pawn.
I thought at first that white could change her move order: 1.Ke5 Kc4, and if the pawns march, then we get a queen ending with white to move. But black does not have to allow that. Instead, she can still use the same trick as before:
1.Ke5 Kc4
2.d5 Kc5!
3.d6 Kc6! and I feel that black should win with the outside passed pawn.
Just took a short look but I feel that 1. Kd5! is the only way to a draw.
1. d5 loses simply as Jonathan pointed out.
As the black threat is Kc4 1. Kd3 seems to be the only alternative.
After 1. Kd3 black has at least draw, too, by simply playing Ka3 as his pawn promotes with check (do I overlook here anything?).
But there are several other moves black can try:
1. Kd3, g5!? or 1. Kd3, Ka5!? (e.g. 2. d5, Kb6 3. Kd4, g5! 4. f4 (what else?), f6 5. f5, b4 6. Kc4, b3 7. Kxb3, Kc5 0:1 or anything like that) and it is a thing of counting if black may even win this.
So I’d say 1. Kd5 secures the draw simply while other moves just give black chances to win.
But (of course) maybe I am missing anything (as I just took a short look and am not that good at counting in difficult pawn endgames)?
Best wishes
Jochen
Black has an advantage here.
Black should win the f2 pawn, but the subsequent queen endgame is very difficult.
1. Kd5 Kc3!
2. Kc5 b4
3. d5 b3
4. d6 b2
5. d7 b1/Q
6. d1/Q Qf5+
7. Kd6 Qxf2 with good winng chances.
So far as I can see (not very), White can draw with either 1.Kd3 or 1.Kd5, but not 1.d5.
Do we know what the players actually did?
Ke5 …race for queen won?
Ke5 …race for queen won?
Jonathan O’Connor covered this in post #2: 1.Ke5 Kc4 2.d5 Kc5 3.d6 Kc6.
Kd5 is probably the best move. White does win this game though. it showed in the tournament results. 😀