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Hasn’t this been on here before?
Anyway, 1…Qe4+ will lead to checkmate quickly.
Sorry I meant Qe3+ obviously
1. Qe3+ (a) Kd5
2. Rb5+ Kc4
3. Qd3#
1. … (b) Kc4
2. Qd3+ Kc5
3. Rb5#
Mark
1.Qe3+ Kd5
(1…. Kc4 2.Qd3+ Kc5 3.Rc5# This I got instantly but not the main line which made me think.)
2.Rb5+ Rc5
(This insertion I thought would complicate the matter but it made things simple)
3.Qd4#
There’s probably a forced mate I’m missing, but White at a minimum wins Black’s Queen:
1. Qe3+ Kc4
1. … Kd5? 2. Rb5+ Rc5 (2. … Kc4 3. Qd3 mate) 3. Qe4 mate
2. Qe6+ Kc5
2. … d5? 3. Qxc6+ Kd4 4. Qc3 mate
3. Qxa2
Geometry is beautiful, isn’t it?
Stupid! Forget that line settling a for winning the Black Queen. Of course there’s a forced mate. Because if
1. Qe3+ Kc4
2. Qd3+ Kc5
3. Rb5 mate
And it’s a good thing there’s a forced mate, because after 1. Qe3+ Kc4 2. Qe6+ Kd4 3. Qxa2 Rh2+ is not at all easy to deal with.
I know it’s late and I was hurrying through, but I still can’t believe I missed the mate after 1. … Kc4, when it’s so similar to the mates after 1. … Kd5. No excuses.
1 Qe3+ Kd5
2 Rb5+ Kc4
3 Qd3#
2 … Rc5
3 Qe4#
1 … Kc4
2 Qd3+ Kc5
3 Rb5#
1.Qe3+ Kd5
1. …Kc4 2.Qd3+ Kc5 3.Rb5++
2.Rb5+ Rc5
2. …Kc4 3.Qd3++
3.Qe4++
Too early repeated. It’s impossible to have forgotten this one already.
It’s an easy one too.
1. Qe3+ Kd5 (1. … Kc4 2. Qd3+ Kc5 3. Rb5#)
2. Rb5+ Rc5 (2. … Kc4 3. Qd3#)
3. Qe4#
1. Qe3+ Kd5 (forced)
2. Rb5+ and either
2….. Rc5
3. Qe4#
or
2….. Kc4
3. Qd3#
1. Qe3+ Kd5
2. Rb5+ Rc5
3. Rxc5#
What is wrong with this?
The position looks artificial.Otherwise how could white R be alive being attacked by two pieces and last move being black’s?
1. Qe3+ Kd5
2. Rb5+ Rc5
3. Qe4++
or
1. Qe3+ Kc4
2. Qe6+ d5 (Kc5 or Kd5 loses Queen)
3. Qxc6+ Kd4
4. Qc3++
To PROF.S.G.BHAT
What if Black’s last move was to take a 2nd queen with Rxh1
To Prof. Bhat:
Black’s last move was RxRh8.
Guessing how it looked like one move back, white had a rook on e1, and black had a rook on h4.
White played 1. Rh8 pretending he wanted to trade off rooks, while he actually just wanted to get a mate by deflecting Rh4 from the protection of e4.
Playing 1. Rh8 was a swindle, since black clearly had better options than 1. … Rxh8??
But the swindle worked, black swallowed the bate.
I understand the viewpoints of both Frank and pht.Frank meant the original Q at h1 and white had just queened at e8 letting black R take original Q at h1. pht’s point is also acceptable that WR was at h1 (equal material)and black R captured it from some square on h file.Then the most possible position for black R would be h3 or h6.If it were from h4 or h5 then black would have carried his own attack by checking on d file.If it were on h3 or h6 he (or she?) would have played …. Rh2+.Any way I was less imaginative guessing backwards..
One does not prove himself a fool until he starts talking.Why I had to talk about artificiality of the position? Frankly I don’t no.(Note: “no”is a short form of know where both k and w are silent and protect the emptiness of the word “no”.that is why when a person says “I know” it is obvious he does not know. The alphabet “w” has its own story.If it is double_u why is it written as double_v ?
I must admit that it would be strange if white had a rook on e1, since he would then have better moves than Rh1??
Even if black rook was on h4, he would then be able to play 1. Qf3+ Kd5 (enforced).
Now Qf4# isn’t possible because of Rh4, but of course white now plays 2. Qe6!+ Kd4 3. Qxa2 winning.
So white can’t have had a rook on e1, but e.g. d1 could be a likely rook position perhaps.
I’m pretty sure black’s rook has been on h4. If it was elsewhere in h-file white would have mated immediately, playing Rh1? would have been pointless.
With WR on d1 and BR on h4, I think white’s position was quite difficult, and the move 1. Rh1 very logical. First of all to prevent black from playing Rh2+. As reply white could have expected Rd4+, but when instead he got Rxh1, then he got this easy win.
About the letter double_u, I think the story goes aproximately along this line:
The latin alphabet originally missed both u and w. The romans used v to represent u, v or w.
I think they concidered it as a u (a vowel), primarily.
Then the germans inventid the letter w to overcome a shortage. But they didn’t call it double anything, they simply called it v, whereas the v was still concidered to be u.
In german w is still called v, whereas they use v as an f! Strange.
The romans also saw a shortage, but they didn’t want to take the new german letter into use. Instead, they redefined v from meaning u to meaning v, and then they invented a new u (the u we have today).
Finally, English beeing both a latin and a german lenguage, was the first to take all 3 in use, u, v and w.
pht,
Thank you very much for all the explanation.It was good to learn a,b,c of u,v,w from you.I know the words motive and motif both being used.Most Indian languages are phonetic.What is written can be pronounced in only one way or vice versa. So Indians have difficulty in picking up European languages.